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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q315-Q320):

NEW QUESTION # 315
A 36-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, aborta 0, presents to the Labour and Delivery unit of a primary care hospital. She is at 40 weeks' gestation. She is having contractions and leaking fluid. She is fearful and does not want to deliver vaginally. Which one of the following is the best next step?

Answer: A

Explanation:
The most appropriate next step is to explore her concerns and provide counselling regarding labour and pain management options . MCCQE objectives emphasize patient-centered care, informed decision-making, and respect for autonomy while ensuring that patients receive appropriate information about risks and benefits.
This patient is in active labour at term with ruptured membranes and expresses fear about vaginal delivery.
The immediate priority is to assess the source of her fear (pain, complications, prior trauma, misinformation) and provide education about available analgesia options (e.g., epidural, intravenous opioids, nonpharmacologic methods) and the relative risks and benefits of cesarean versus vaginal delivery.
Automatically arranging a cesarean without discussion is inappropriate, particularly in a primary care setting without clear medical indication. Conversely, refusing cesarean outright is paternalistic and fails to address her concerns. Analgesia may be appropriate but should follow exploration of her preferences. Therefore, empathetic discussion and shared decision-making are the best initial approach.


NEW QUESTION # 316
A 30-year-old woman presents to your office with a 6-week history of left lower quadrant pain and dyspareunia. A pelvic ultrasound is normal. Which one of the following is the most important immediate investigation?

Answer: D

Explanation:
This clinical presentation is highly suggestive of chronic pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), especially given the left lower quadrant pain and dyspareunia with a normal pelvic ultrasound. PID is often caused by sexually transmitted infections (STIs), such as Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which may not be evident on imaging.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology:
"Cervical swabs for N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis are essential in the workup of suspected PID or cervicitis, even when imaging is normal. Dyspareunia and chronic pelvic pain with normal imaging should prompt testing for STIs." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics & Gynecology > 82-6: Pelvic Pain):
"Candidates must consider and investigate for infectious causes of pelvic pain, including PID, which requires cervical swab testing as an essential first-line investigation." Laparoscopy (A) is invasive and reserved for uncertain or refractory cases. Hysterosalpingography (C) is used in infertility workups, not acute pain. Endometrial biopsy (D) and MRI (E) are not first-line.


NEW QUESTION # 317
A 71-year-old man with stable chronic low back pain on hydromorphone (8 mg twice daily) presents upset, requesting an early refill. He reports his granddaughter has been stealing his medication and pressuring him for refills. Which one of the following is the best next step?

Answer: C

Explanation:
This case suggests diversion of prescription opioids, a serious safety and regulatory concern. The physician must balance maintaining patient care with minimizing risk. Daily dispensing via a monitored pharmacy is the safest and most practical solution to prevent misuse or theft, while avoiding immediate discontinuation of the patient's needed medication.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Chronic Pain & Substance Use:
"In cases of concern for opioid diversion, consider witnessed daily dispensing, prescription monitoring, and involving caregivers when appropriate." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > Pain Management > 56-2):
"The candidate must demonstrate understanding of strategies for safe prescribing and monitoring of controlled substances, including mitigation of diversion." Calling the police (A) is not the physician's immediate duty. Providing an early refill (B) worsens risk.
Tapering (C) may be appropriate later, but first the medication must be safeguarded. Increasing quantity (D) is inappropriate.


NEW QUESTION # 318
A 20-year-old woman from a remote northern community presents to the office with a 2-week history of malaise and a 2-day history of disabling pain in her left elbow. She had a sore throat 4 weeks ago. She also notes that she has had 2 weeks of pain and swelling in her right knee, followed by pain and swelling in her left elbow. On examination, you note 0.5-cm to 1-cm nodules just above both her elbows. You find no active joint swelling. An electrocardiogram shows a prolonged PR interval. Which one of the following is the most appropriate investigation?

Answer: B

Explanation:
This presentation is most consistent with acute rheumatic fever (ARF): a history of pharyngitis 4 weeks earlier, migratory large-joint pain/swelling (knee then elbow), subcutaneous nodules over extensor surfaces, and prolonged PR interval (a Jones minor criterion indicating cardiac involvement). MCCQE objectives emphasize that diagnosing ARF requires meeting Jones criteria plus evidence of preceding group A streptococcal (GAS) infection. Because the sore throat occurred weeks ago, a pharyngeal culture is often negative and is less useful for establishing prior GAS infection. The most appropriate test is therefore an antistreptolysin O (ASO) titre (or other streptococcal serology such as anti-DNase B), which documents a recent streptococcal immune response and supports the diagnosis. Echocardiography can assess severity of carditis/valvular disease, but it does not provide the required evidence of preceding GAS infection.
Rheumatoid factor and biopsy of nodules do not address the likely ARF diagnosis.


NEW QUESTION # 319
A 19-year-old primigravid woman presents to the office with a rapid increase of abdominal girth and shortness of breath. Her pregnancy is at 27 weeks' gestation, as confirmed by early ultrasonogram. The symphysis-fundal height is 45 cm. The fetal heart rate is 150/min (110-160). Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Polyhydramnios is the most likely diagnosis given the rapid increase in abdominal girth , maternal shortness of breath , and a symphysis-fundal height (45 cm) significantly greater than expected for 27 weeks' gestation.
MCCQE objectives emphasize that fundal height should approximately correspond (±2-3 cm) to gestational age in weeks after 20 weeks. A discrepancy this large suggests excessive amniotic fluid volume.
Polyhydramnios leads to uterine overdistension, which explains dyspnea and rapid abdominal enlargement.
Twin pregnancy can cause a large fundal height, but early ultrasound confirmation of gestational age would likely have identified multiple gestation. Partial mole is typically associated with abnormal bleeding and abnormal fetal findings. Fetal macrosomia increases fundal height but usually not to this degree at 27 weeks and is more gradual. Ovarian tumor with ascites is less likely in a confirmed intrauterine pregnancy with normal fetal heart rate. Polyhydramnios is commonly associated with maternal diabetes or fetal anomalies affecting swallowing and requires further evaluation with ultrasound and glucose screening.


NEW QUESTION # 320
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